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312-38 Practice Questions

Question # 1
How is a “risk” represented?
A. Asset + threat
B. Motive (goal) + method
C. Asset + threat + vulnerability
D. Motive (goal) + method + vulnerability


C. Asset + threat + vulnerability

Explanation:

In cybersecurity, risk is represented by the combination of an asset, a threat, and a vulnerability. This means that for a risk to exist, there must be something of value (an asset) that could be negatively impacted, a potential source of harm (a threat), and a weakness that could be exploited (a vulnerability). The presence of an asset alone does not constitute a risk without the potential for a threat to exploit a vulnerability. Similarly, a threat without the ability to exploit a vulnerability does not pose a risk to an asset. Therefore, the representation of risk encompasses all three elements: the asset that needs protection, the threat that could cause harm, and the vulnerability that could allow the threat to affect the asset.

References: This definition aligns with the principles of risk management and cybersecurity frameworks, such as those from the National Institute of Standards and Technology (NIST) and is consistent with the EC-Council’s Certified Network Defender (CND) program guidelines1234.


Question # 2
Richard has been working as a Linux system administrator at an MNC. He wants to maintain a productive and secure environment by improving the performance of the systems through Linux patch management. Richard is using Ubuntu and wants to patch the Linux systems manually. Which among the following command installs updates (new ones) for Debun based Linux OSes?
A. sudo apt-get dist-upgrade
B. sudo apt-get update
C. sudo apt-get dist-update
D. sudo apt-get upgrate


A. sudo apt-get dist-upgrade

Explanation: The command sudo apt-get dist-upgrade is used to install updates for Debian-based Linux operating systems, which includes Ubuntu. This command intelligently handles changes with new versions of packages and will install the newest versions of all packages currently installed on the system. It also handles changing dependencies with new versions of packages and will attempt to upgrade the most important packages at the expense of less important ones if necessary. The dist-upgrade command, therefore, will install or remove packages as necessary to complete the full update.


Question # 3
Which protocol would the network administrator choose for the wireless network design. If he needs to satisfy the minimum requirement of 2.4 GHz, 22 MHz of bandwidth, 2 Mbits/s stream for data rate and use DSSS for modulation.
A. 802.11a
B. 802.11g
C. 802.11b
D. 802.11n


C. 802.11b

Explanation: The 802.11b protocol is the correct choice for the network administrator to satisfy the specified requirements. This protocol operates in the 2.4 GHz frequency band, uses Direct-Sequence Spread Spectrum (DSSS) for modulation, and provides a data rate of up to 11 Mbits/s, which is well above the minimum requirement of 2 Mbits/s. The 802.11b standard also uses a channel width of 22 MHz, which matches the given specification. It was designed to be backward compatible with the original 802.11 standard and is widely used due to its range and compatibility with many devices.


Question # 4
A stateful multilayer inspection firewall combines the aspects of Application level gateway, Circuit level gateway and Packet filtering firewall. On which layers of the OSI model, does the Stateful multilayer inspection firewall works?
A. Network, Session & Application
B. Physical & application
C. Session & network
D. Physical, session & application


A. Network, Session & Application

Explanation:

A stateful multilayer inspection firewall operates across multiple layers of the OSI model, specifically the Network, Session, and Application layers. It combines the features of packet filtering, circuit-level gateway, and application-level gateway firewalls. This type of firewall inspects the state and context of network traffic, ensuring that all packets are part of a known and valid session. It can make decisions based on the connection state as well as the contents of the traffic, providing a thorough inspection across these layers.

References: The information is consistent with the characteristics of stateful multilayer inspection firewalls as described in various sources, which confirm that they work across the Network, Session, and Application layers of the OSI model1234.



Question # 5
Which type of antenna is based on the principle of a satellite dish and can pick up Wi-Fi signals from a distance of ten miles of more?
A. Yagi antenna
B. Directional antenna
C. Omnidirectional antenna
D. Parabolic Grid antenna


D. Parabolic Grid antenna

Explanation:

The Parabolic Grid antenna is designed based on the principle of a satellite dish. This type of antenna can focus the radio waves onto a particular direction and is capable of picking up Wi-Fi signals from very long distances, often ten miles or more, depending on the specific design and conditions. It is highly directional and has a narrow focus, making it ideal for point-to-point communication in long-range Wi-Fi networks.

References: The EC-Council’s Certified Network Defender (CND) course materials include information on various types of antennas and their uses in network defense. The Parabolic Grid antenna is mentioned as a type of antenna that can pick up signals from a great distance, which aligns with the principles of satellite dishes as described in the CND study guide1.



Question # 6
Albert works as a Windows system administrator at an MNC. He uses PowerShell logging to identify any suspicious scripting activity across the network. He wants to record pipeline execution details as

PowerShell executes, including variable initialization and command invocations. Which PowerShell logging component records pipeline execution details as PowerShell executes?
A. Module logging
B. Script block logging
C. Event logging
D. Transcript logging


B. Script block logging

Explanation:

Script block logging is the PowerShell logging component that records the details of pipeline execution as PowerShell executes, including variable initialization and command invocations. This feature is particularly useful for identifying and recording suspicious scripting activity, as it captures the full content of script blocks as they are executed, providing a detailed audit trail. This level of logging is essential for security forensics and understanding the context of commands executed within the PowerShell environment.

References: The explanation is based on the functionality of PowerShell’s logging capabilities, where script block logging is designed to capture and record detailed information about script execution, which is crucial for security monitoring and incident response1.


Question # 7
Which technique is used in RAID level 0 where the data is split into blocks and written evenly across multiple disks?
A. Disk mirroring
B. Disk stripping
C. Data splitting
D. Disk partition


B. Disk stripping

Explanation:

RAID level 0 employs a technique known as disk stripping, which involves splitting data into blocks and distributing them evenly across multiple disks. This method enhances performance by allowing simultaneous read and write operations on multiple drives. However, it does not provide redundancy, meaning if one drive fails, all data on the array could be lost. The primary advantage of disk stripping is the improved I/O performance due to the parallel processing of data across the drives.

References: This explanation is based on standard RAID technology descriptions, which are part of the Certified Network Defender (CND) curriculum that covers various data storage strategies, including RAID configurations1234.



Question # 8
On which of the following OSI layers does the Pretty Good Privacy (PGP) work?
A. Application
B. Data Link
C. Network
D. Transport


A. Application

Explanation:

Pretty Good Privacy (PGP) is an encryption program that provides confidentiality, integrity, and authentication for data communication. PGP operates at the Application layer of the OSI model. This is because it is used to encrypt and decrypt texts, emails, files, directories, and whole disk partitions and to enhance the security of email communications. PGP provides these services by utilizing cryptographic privacy and authentication through a hybrid approach that combines symmetric and asymmetric encryption, which is implemented at the Application layer.

References: The explanation aligns with the functionalities of PGP as described in the context of the OSI model and is consistent with the Certified Network Defender (CND) course material. For further details, please refer to the official CND study guide and documents.



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ECCouncil 312-38 Exam Dumps

Exam Name: Certified Network Defender (CND)
Certification Name: CND

ECCouncil 312-38 exam dumps are created by industry top professionals and after that its also verified by expert team. We are providing you updated Certified Network Defender (CND) exam questions answers. We keep updating our CND practice test according to real exam. So prepare from our latest questions answers and pass your exam.

  • Total Questions: 362
  • Last Updation Date: 16-Jan-2025

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