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312-38 Practice Questions

Question # 1
Which among the following filter is used to detect a SYN/FIN attack?
A. tcp.flags==0x002
B. tcp.flags==0x004
C. tcp.flags==0x003
D. tcp.flags==0x001


C. tcp.flags==0x003

Explanation: The filter tcp.flags==0x003 is used to detect SYN/FIN attacks. This filter is designed to identify packets where both the SYN and FIN flags are set, which is an unusual combination and indicative of a potential SYN/FIN attack. In a typical TCP communication, a SYN flag is used to initiate a connection, and a FIN flag is used to gracefully close a connection. Therefore, seeing both flags set in a single packet suggests a malformed or malicious packet, which is characteristic of a SYN/FIN attack.

Question # 2
You are tasked to perform black hat vulnerability assessment for a client. You received official written permission to work with: company site, forum, Linux server with LAMP, where this site is hosted. Which vulnerability assessment tool should you consider using?
A. OpenVAS
B. hping
C. wireshark
D. dnsbrute


A. OpenVAS

Explanation:

OpenVAS stands out as the most suitable tool for conducting a vulnerability assessment on a Linux server with LAMP. It is a full-featured vulnerability scanner that’s actively maintained and updated, capable of detecting thousands of vulnerabilities in network services and software. For a black hat vulnerability assessment, which implies testing from the perspective of a potential attacker, OpenVAS can simulate attacks on the network services running on the LAMP stack and identify vulnerabilities that could be exploited.

References: The choice of OpenVAS is supported by its inclusion in various lists of top vulnerability assessment tools for Linux servers. It is specifically designed to perform comprehensive scans and is frequently updated to include the latest vulnerability checks12.


Question # 3
Under which of the following acts can an international financial institution be prosecuted if it fails to maintain the privacy of its customer’s information?
A. GLBA
B. FISMA
C. DMCA
D. SOX


A. GLBA

Explanation: The Gramm-Leach-Bliley Act (GLBA), also known as the Financial Services Modernization Act of 1999, is the correct answer. The GLBA mandates that financial institutions – which can include international financial institutions operating in the United States – protect the privacy of consumers’ personal financial information. The act requires financial institutions to explain their information-sharing practices to their customers and to safeguard sensitive data. Failure to comply with the GLBA can result in prosecution and significant penalties.
References: The information provided is based on my training data which includes knowledge of the GLBA and its implications for financial institutions regarding the privacy and protection of customer information. For the most accurate and detailed reference, it is recommended to consult the official documents and study guides from the Certified Network Defender (CND) course by the EC-Council.

Question # 4
An attacker uses different types of password cracking techniques to crack the password and gain unauthorized access to a system. An attacker uses a file containing a list of commonly used passwords. They then upload this file into the cracking application that runs against the user accounts. Which of the following password cracking techniques is the attacker trying?
A. Bruteforce
B. Rainbow table
C. Hybrid
D. Dictionary


D. Dictionary

Explanation: The attacker is employing a Dictionary attack, which is a method where a file containing a list of commonly used passwords is used to attempt to gain unauthorized access to user accounts. This technique relies on the probability that many users will use common passwords that are easy to guess. It is more efficient than a brute-force attack since it uses a predefined list of words, rather than trying all possible combinations of characters.

Question # 5
In Public Key Infrastructure (PKI), which authority is responsible for issuing and verifying the certificates?
A. Registration authority
B. Certificate authority
C. Digital Certificate authority
D. Digital signature authority


B. Certificate authority

Explanation: In Public Key Infrastructure (PKI), the Certificate Authority (CA) is responsible for issuing digital certificates. The CA validates entities and binds their public keys with their respective identities through a process of registration and issuance of certificates. This process can be automated or carried out under human supervision. The Registration Authority (RA) often assists the CA by handling the vetting of certificate requests and authenticating the entity making the request, but it does not issue certificates. The CA maintains the integrity of the binding by ensuring that the certificates are issued according to industry norms and best practices, and it also manages the revocation of certificates when necessary.

Question # 6
Which of the following refers to the clues, artifacts, or evidence that indicate a potential intrusion or malicious activity in an organization's infrastructure?
A. Indicators of attack
B. Indicators of compromise
C. Key risk indicators
D. Indicators of exposure


B. Indicators of compromise

Explanation:

Indicators of Compromise (IoCs) are clues, artifacts, or evidence that suggest a potential intrusion or malicious activity within an organization's infrastructure. IoCs are used to identify and respond to security breaches and can include log entries, file hashes, unusual network traffic, or specific patterns that match known threats.

Indicators of Attack (IoA): Focus on detecting the methods and techniques used by attackers.
Key Risk Indicators: Metrics that indicate increased risk levels.
Indicators of Exposure: Signs that reveal vulnerabilities or weaknesses in the system.

References:

EC-Council Certified Network Defender (CND) Study Guide
Threat detection and incident response documentation

Question # 7
Which of the following is an example of Indicators of Attack?
A. Malware
B. Signatures
C. Exploits
D. Remote code execution


C. Exploits

Explanation:

Indicators of Attack (IOAs) are behaviors or actions that suggest an attacker’s intent to compromise a system. Unlike Indicators of Compromise (IOCs), which are evidence that an attack has already occurred, IOAs focus on the detection of attack attempts before they can cause harm. Exploits are a prime example of IOAs because they are tools or techniques used to take advantage of vulnerabilities in systems, often before any actual damage is done. This can include exploiting security holes, system weaknesses, or software bugs to gain unauthorized access or perform unauthorized actions.

References: The concept of IOAs, including the use of exploits as an example, aligns with cybersecurity best practices and the objectives of the Certified Network Defender (CND) program. The information provided is based on standard cybersecurity frameworks and the CND’s focus on understanding and identifying potential threats before they manifest into actual attacks123.


Question # 8
The company has implemented a backup plan. James is working as a network administrator for the company and is taking full backups of the data every time a backup is initiated. Alex who is a senior security manager talks to him about using a differential backup instead and asks him to implement this once a full backup of the data is completed. What is/are the reason(s) Alex is suggesting that James use a differential backup? (Select all that apply)
A. Less storage space is required
B. Father restoration
C. Slower than a full backup
D. Faster than a full backup
E. Less expensive than full backup


A. Less storage space is required
E. Less expensive than full backup

Explanation:

Differential backups are advantageous because they only back up data that has changed since the last full backup. This means they require less storage space than taking a full backup every time, which can be significant as data accumulates over time. Additionally, differential backups are generally faster than full backups because they involve less data. This speed can be crucial for maintaining regular backup schedules without disrupting network operations. Lastly, because differential backups involve less data and take less time, they can be less expensive than full backups, considering the costs associated with storage and the time required for backup operations.

References: The Certified Network Defender (CND) program by EC-Council includes discussions on various backup strategies, including differential backups, as part of its comprehensive approach to network security. The program emphasizes the importance of efficient and effective backup strategies as a part of disaster recovery and business continuity planning12.


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ECCouncil 312-38 Exam Dumps

Exam Name: Certified Network Defender (CND)
Certification Name: CND

ECCouncil 312-38 exam dumps are created by industry top professionals and after that its also verified by expert team. We are providing you updated Certified Network Defender (CND) exam questions answers. We keep updating our CND practice test according to real exam. So prepare from our latest questions answers and pass your exam.

  • Total Questions: 362
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