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CAS-005 Practice Questions

Question # 1
A company that uses containers to run its applications is required to identify vulnerabilities on every container image in a private repository The security team needs to be able to quickly evaluate whether to respond to a given vulnerability Which of the following, will allow the security team to achieve the objective with the last effort?
A. SAST scan reports
B. Centralized SBoM
C. CIS benchmark compliance reports
D. Credentialed vulnerability scan


B. Centralized SBoM

Explanation:

A centralized Software Bill of Materials (SBoM) is the best solution for identifying vulnerabilities in container images in a private repository. An SBoM provides a comprehensive inventory of all components, dependencies, and their versions within a container image, facilitating quick evaluation and response to vulnerabilities. Why Centralized SBoM?

Comprehensive Inventory: An SBoM lists all software components, including their versions and dependencies, allowing for thorough vulnerability assessments. Quick Identification: Centralizing SBoM data enables rapid identification of affected containers when a vulnerability is disclosed.

Automation: SBoMs can be integrated into automated tools for continuous monitoring and alerting of vulnerabilities.

Regulatory Compliance: Helps in meeting compliance requirements by providing a clear and auditable record of all software components used. Other options, while useful, do not provide the same level of comprehensive and efficient vulnerability management:

A. SAST scan reports: Focuses on static analysis of code but may not cover all components in container images. C. CIS benchmark compliance reports: Ensures compliance with security benchmarks but does not provide detailed component inventory. D. Credentialed vulnerability scan: Useful for in-depth scans but may not be as efficient for quick vulnerability evaluation.

References:

CompTIA SecurityX Study Guide
"Software Bill of Materials (SBoM)," NIST Documentation
"Managing Container Security with SBoM," OWASP


Question # 2
Which of the following AI concerns is most adequately addressed by input sanitation?
A. Model inversion
B. Prompt Injection
C. Data poisoning
D. Non-explainable model


B. Prompt Injection

Explanation:

Input sanitation is a critical process in cybersecurity that involves validating and cleaning data provided by users to prevent malicious inputs from causing harm. In the context of AI concerns:

A. Model inversion involves an attacker inferring sensitive data from model outputs, typically requiring sophisticated methods beyond just manipulating input data.

B. Prompt Injection is a form of attack where an adversary provides malicious input to manipulate the behavior of AI models, particularly those dealing with natural language processing (NLP). Input sanitation directly addresses this by ensuring that inputs are cleaned and validated to remove potentially harmful commands or instructions that could alter the AI's behavior.

C. Data poisoning involves injecting malicious data into the training set to compromise the model. While input sanitation can help by filtering out bad data, data poisoning is typically addressed through robust data validation and monitoring during the model training phase, rather than real-time input sanitation.

D. Non-explainable model refers to the lack of transparency in how AI models make decisions. This concern is not addressed by input sanitation, as it relates more to model design and interpretability techniques.

Input sanitation is most relevant and effective for preventing Prompt Injection attacks, where the integrity of user inputs directly impacts the performance and security of AI models.

References:

CompTIA Security+ Study Guide
"Security of Machine Learning" by Battista Biggio, Blaine Nelson, and Pavel Laskov
OWASP (Open Web Application Security Project) guidelines on input validation and injection attacks
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Bottom of Form


Question # 3
A company hosts a platform-as-a-service solution with a web-based front end, through which customer interact with data sets. A security administrator needs to deploy controls to prevent application-focused attacks. Which of the following most directly supports the administrator's objective'
A. improving security dashboard visualization on SIEM
B. Rotating API access and authorization keys every two months
C. Implementing application toad balancing and cross-region availability
D. Creating WAF policies for relevant programming languages


D. Creating WAF policies for relevant programming languages

Explanation:

The best way to prevent application-focused attacks for a platform-as-a service solution with a web-based front end is to create Web Application Firewall (WAF) policies for relevant programming languages. Here's why: Application-Focused Attack Prevention: WAFs are designed to protect web applications by filtering and monitoring HTTP traffic between a web application and the Internet. They help prevent attacks such as SQL injection, cross-site scripting (XSS), and other application-layer attacks. Customizable Rules: WAF policies can be tailored to the specific programming languages and frameworks used by the web application, providing targeted protection based on known vulnerabilities and attack patterns. Real-Time Protection: WAFs provide real-time protection, blocking malicious requests before they reach the application, thereby enhancing the security posture of the platform.


Question # 4
A security engineer performed a code scan that resulted in many false positives. The security engineer must find a solution that improves the quality of scanning results before application deployment. Which of the following is the best solution?
A. Limiting the tool to a specific coding language and tuning the rule set
B. Configuring branch protection rules and dependency checks
C. Using an application vulnerability scanner to identify coding flaws in production
D. Performing updates on code libraries before code development


A. Limiting the tool to a specific coding language and tuning the rule set

Explanation:

To improve the quality of code scanning results and reduce false positives, the best solution is to limit the tool to a specific coding language and fine-tune the rule set. By configuring the code scanning tool to focus on the specific language used in the application, the tool can more accurately identify relevant issues and reduce the number of false positives. Additionally, tuning the rule set ensures that the tool's checks are appropriate for the application's context, further improving the accuracy of the scan results.

References:

CompTIA SecurityX Study Guide: Discusses best practices for configuring code scanning tools, including language-specific tuning and rule set adjustments. "Secure Coding: Principles and Practices" by Mark G. Graff and Kenneth R. van Wyk: Highlights the importance of customizing code analysis tools to reduce false positives.

OWASP (Open Web Application Security Project): Provides guidelines for configuring and tuning code scanning tools to improve accuracy.



Question # 5
A company detects suspicious activity associated with external connections Security detection tools are unable to categorize this activity. Which of the following is the best solution to help the company overcome this challenge?
A. Implement an Interactive honeypot
B. Map network traffic to known loCs.
C. Monitor the dark web
D. implement UEBA


D. implement UEBA

Explanation:

User and Entity Behavior Analytics (UEBA) is the best solution to help the company overcome challenges associated with suspicious activity that cannot be categorized by traditional detection tools. UEBA uses advanced analytics to establish baselines of normal behavior for users and entities within the network. It then identifies deviations from these baselines, which may indicate malicious activity. This approach is particularly effective for detecting unknown threats and sophisticated attacks that do not match known indicators of compromise (IoCs).

Reference: CompTIA SecurityX Study Guide, Chapter on Advanced Threat Detection and Mitigation, Section on User and Entity Behavior Analytics (UEBA).



Question # 6
A security analyst discovered requests associated with IP addresses known for born legitimate 3nd bot-related traffic. Which of the following should the analyst use to determine whether the requests are malicious?
A. User-agent string
B. Byte length of the request
C. Web application headers
D. HTML encoding field


A. User-agent string

Explanation:

The user-agent string can provide valuable information to distinguish between legitimate and bot-related traffic. It contains details about the browser, device, and sometimes the operating system of the client making the request.

Why Use User-Agent String?

Identify Patterns: User-agent strings can help identify patterns that are typical of bots or legitimate users.

Block Malicious Bots: Many bots use known user-agent strings, and identifying these can help block malicious requests.

Anomalies Detection: Anomalous user-agent strings can indicate spoofing attempts or malicious activity.

Other options provide useful information but may not be as effective for initial determination of the nature of the request:

B. Byte length of the request: This can indicate anomalies but does not provide detailed information about the client.

C. Web application headers: While useful, they may not provide enough distinction between legitimate and bot traffic.

D. HTML encoding field: This is not typically used for identifying the nature of the request.

References:

CompTIA SecurityX Study Guide

"User-Agent Analysis for Security," OWASP

NIST Special Publication 800-94, "Guide to Intrusion Detection and Prevention Systems (IDPS)"



Question # 7
A developer needs to improve the cryptographic strength of a password-storage component in a web application without completely replacing the crypto-module. Which of the following is the most appropriate technique?
A. Key splitting
B. Key escrow
C. Key rotation
D. Key encryption
E. Key stretching


E. Key stretching

The most appropriate technique to improve the cryptographic strength of a password-storage component in a web application without completely replacing the cryptomodule is key stretching. Here's why:
Enhanced Security: Key stretching algorithms, such as PBKDF2, bcrypt, and scrypt, increase the computational effort required to derive the encryption key from the password, making brute-force attacks more difficult and time-consuming.
Compatibility: Key stretching can be implemented alongside existing cryptographic modules, enhancing their security without the need for a complete overhaul.
Industry Best Practices: Key stretching is a widely recommended practice for securely storing passwords, as it significantly improves resistance to passwordcracking attacks.


Question # 8
Asecuntv administrator is performing a gap assessment against a specific OS benchmark The benchmark requires the following configurations be applied to endpomts:
• Full disk encryption
* Host-based firewall
• Time synchronization
* Password policies
• Application allow listing
* Zero Trust application access
Which of the following solutions best addresses the requirements? (Select two).
A. CASB
B. SBoM
C. SCAP
D. SASE
E. HIDS


C. SCAP
D. SASE

Explanation:

To address the specific OS benchmark configurations, the following solutions are most appropriate:

C. SCAP (Security Content Automation Protocol): SCAP helps in automating vulnerability management and policy compliance, including configurations like full disk encryption, host-based firewalls, and password policies.

D. SASE (Secure Access Service Edge): SASE provides a framework for Zero Trust network access and application allow listing, ensuring secure and compliant access to applications and data.

These solutions together cover the comprehensive security requirements specified in the OS benchmark, ensuring a robust security posture for endpoints.

References:

CompTIA SecurityX Study Guide: Discusses SCAP and SASE as part of security configuration management and Zero Trust architectures.

NIST Special Publication 800-126, "The Technical Specification for the Security Content Automation Protocol (SCAP)": Details SCAP's role in security automation. "Zero Trust Networks: Building Secure Systems in Untrusted Networks" by Evan Gilman and Doug Barth: Covers the principles of Zero Trust and how SASE can implement them.

By implementing SCAP and SASE, the organization ensures that all the specified security configurations are applied and maintained effectively.



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CompTIA CAS-005 Exam Dumps

Exam Name: CompTIA SecurityX Certification Exam
Certification Name: CompTIA CASP

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  • Total Questions: 199
  • Last Updation Date: 15-Apr-2025

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