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CAS-005 Practice Questions

Question # 1
A user submits a help desk ticket stating then account does not authenticate sometimes. An analyst reviews the following logs for the user: Which of the following best explains the reason the user's access is being denied?
A. incorrectly typed password
B. Time-based access restrictions
C. Account compromise
D. Invalid user-to-device bindings


B. Time-based access restrictions

Explanation:

The logs reviewed for the user indicate that access is being denied due to time-based access restrictions. These restrictions are commonly implemented to limit access to systems during specific hours to enhance security. If a user attempts to authenticate outside of the allowed time window, access will be denied. This measure helps prevent unauthorized access during non-business hours, reducing the risk of security incidents.

References:

CompTIA SecurityX Study Guide: Covers various access control methods, including time-based restrictions, as a means of enhancing security. NIST Special Publication 800-53, "Security and Privacy Controls for Information Systems and Organizations": Recommends the use of time-based access restrictions as part of access control policies.

"Access Control and Identity Management" by Mike Chapple and Aaron French: Discusses the implementation and benefits of time-based access restrictions.


Question # 2
A security team is responding to malicious activity and needs to determine the scope of impact the malicious activity appears to affect certain version of an application used by the organization Which of the following actions best enables the team to determine the scope of Impact?
A. Performing a port scan
B. Inspecting egress network traffic
C. Reviewing the asset inventory
D. Analyzing user behavior


C. Reviewing the asset inventory

Explanation:

Reviewing the asset inventory allows the security team to identify all instances of the affected application versions within the organization. By knowing which systems are running the vulnerable versions, the team can assess the full scope of the impact, determine which systems might be compromised, and prioritize them for further investigation and remediation.

Performing a port scan (Option A) might help identify open ports but does not provide specific information about the application versions. Inspecting egress network traffic (Option B) and analyzing user behavior (Option D) are important steps in the incident response process but do not directly identify which versions of the application are affected.

References:

CompTIA Security+ Study Guide

NIST SP 800-61 Rev. 2, "Computer Security Incident Handling Guide"

CIS Controls, "Control 1: Inventory and Control of Hardware Assets" and "Control

2: Inventory and Control of Software Assets"


Question # 3
A systems administrator wants to use existing resources to automate reporting from disparate security appliances that do not currently communicate. Which of the following is the best way to meet this objective?
A. Configuring an API Integration to aggregate the different data sets
B. Combining back-end application storage into a single, relational database
C. Purchasing and deploying commercial off the shelf aggregation software
D. Migrating application usage logs to on-premises storage


A. Configuring an API Integration to aggregate the different data sets

Explanation:

The best way to automate reporting from disparate security appliances that do not currently communicate is to configure an API Integration to aggregate the different data sets. Here's why:

Interoperability: APIs allow different systems to communicate and share data, even if they were not originally designed to work together. This enables the integration of various security appliances into a unified reporting system.

Automation: API integrations can automate the process of data collection, aggregation, and reporting, reducing manual effort and increasing efficiency.

Scalability: APIs provide a scalable solution that can easily be extended to include additional security appliances or data sources as needed.


Question # 4
A security engineer needs 10 secure the OT environment based on me following requirements

• Isolate the OT network segment

• Restrict Internet access.

• Apply security updates two workstations

• Provide remote access to third-party vendors

Which of the following design strategies should the engineer implement to best meet these requirements?

A. Deploy a jump box on the third party network to access the OT environment and provide updates using a physical delivery method on the workstations
B. Implement a bastion host in the OT network with security tools in place to monitor access and use a dedicated update server for the workstations.
C. Enable outbound internet access on the OT firewall to any destination IP address and use the centralized update server for the workstations
D. Create a staging environment on the OT network for the third-party vendor to access and enable automatic updates on the workstations.


B. Implement a bastion host in the OT network with security tools in place to monitor access and use a dedicated update server for the workstations.

Explanation:

To secure the Operational Technology (OT) environment based on the given requirements, the best approach is to implement a bastion host in the OT network. The bastion host serves as a secure entry point for remote access, allowing third-party vendors to connect while being monitored by security tools. Using a dedicated update server for workstations ensures that security updates are applied in a controlled manner without direct internet access.

References:

CompTIA SecurityX Study Guide: Recommends the use of bastion hosts and dedicated update servers for securing OT environments.

NIST Special Publication 800-82, "Guide to Industrial Control Systems (ICS) Security": Advises on isolating OT networks and using secure remote access methods.

"Industrial Network Security" by Eric D. Knapp and Joel Thomas Langill: Discusses strategies for securing OT networks, including the use of bastion hosts and update servers.


Question # 5
A security operations engineer needs to prevent inadvertent data disclosure when encrypted SSDs are reused within an enterprise. Which of the following is the most secure way to achieve this goal?

A. Executing a script that deletes and overwrites all data on the SSD three times
B. Wiping the SSD through degaussing
C. Securely deleting the encryption keys used by the SSD
D. Writing non-zero, random data to all cells of the SSD
A. Executing a script that deletes and overwrites all data on the SSD three times
B. Wiping the SSD through degaussing
C. Securely deleting the encryption keys used by the SSD
D. Writing non-zero, random data to all cells of the SSD


C. Securely deleting the encryption keys used by the SSD

Explanation:

The most secure way to prevent inadvertent data disclosure when encrypted SSDs are reused is to securely delete the encryption keys used by the SSD. Without the encryption keys, the data on the SSD remains encrypted and is effectively unreadable, rendering any residual data useless. This method is more reliable and efficient than overwriting data multiple times or using other physical destruction methods.

References:

CompTIA SecurityX Study Guide: Highlights the importance of managing encryption keys and securely deleting them to protect data.

NIST Special Publication 800-88, "Guidelines for Media Sanitization": Recommends cryptographic erasure as a secure method for sanitizing encrypted storage devices


Question # 6
A company detects suspicious activity associated with external connections Security detection tools are unable to categorize this activity. Which of the following is the best solution to help the company overcome this challenge?
A. Implement an Interactive honeypot
B. Map network traffic to known loCs.
C. Monitor the dark web
D. implement UEBA


D. implement UEBA

Explanation:

User and Entity Behavior Analytics (UEBA) is the best solution to help the company overcome challenges associated with suspicious activity that cannot be categorized by traditional detection tools. UEBA uses advanced analytics to establish baselines of normal behavior for users and entities within the network. It then identifies deviations from these baselines, which may indicate malicious activity. This approach is particularly effective for detecting unknown threats and sophisticated attacks that do not match known indicators of compromise (IoCs).

Reference: CompTIA SecurityX Study Guide, Chapter on Advanced Threat Detection and Mitigation, Section on User and Entity Behavior Analytics (UEBA).


Question # 7
An organization is looking for gaps in its detection capabilities based on the APTs that may target the industry Which of the following should the security analyst use to perform threat modeling?
A. ATT&CK
B. OWASP
C. CAPEC
D. STRIDE


A. ATT&CK

Explanation:

The ATT&CK (Adversarial Tactics, Techniques, and Common Knowledge) framework is the best tool for a security analyst to use for threat modeling when looking for gaps in detection capabilities based on Advanced Persistent Threats (APTs) that may target the industry. Here’s why:

Comprehensive Framework: ATT&CK provides a detailed and structured repository of known adversary tactics and techniques based on real-world observations. It helps organizations understand how attackers operate and what techniques they might use.

Gap Analysis: By mapping existing security controls against the ATT&CK matrix, analysts can identify which tactics and techniques are not adequately covered by current detection and mitigation measures.

Industry Relevance: The ATT&CK framework is continuously updated with the latest threat intelligence, making it highly relevant for industries facing APT threats. It provides insights into specific APT groups and their preferred methods of attack.


Question # 8
A software company deployed a new application based on its internal code repository Several customers are reporting anti-malware alerts on workstations used to test the application Which of the following is the most likely cause of the alerts?
A. Misconfigured code commit
B. Unsecure bundled libraries
C. Invalid code signing certificate
D. Data leakage


B. Unsecure bundled libraries

Explanation:

The most likely cause of the anti-malware alerts on customer workstations is unsecure bundled libraries. When developing and deploying new applications, it is common for developers to use third-party libraries. If these libraries are not properly vetted for security, they can introduce vulnerabilities or malicious code.

Why Unsecure Bundled Libraries?

Third-Party Risks: Using libraries that are not secure can lead to malware infections if the libraries contain malicious code or vulnerabilities.

Code Dependencies: Libraries may have dependencies that are not secure, leading to potential security risks.

Common Issue: This is a frequent issue in software development where libraries are used for convenience but not properly vetted for security.

Other options, while relevant, are less likely to cause widespread anti-malware alerts:

A. Misconfigured code commit: Could lead to issues but less likely to trigger antimalware alerts.
C. Invalid code signing certificate: Would lead to trust issues but not typically antimalware alerts.
D. Data leakage: Relevant for privacy concerns but not directly related to antimalware alerts.

References:

CompTIA SecurityX Study Guide
"Securing Open Source Libraries," OWASP
"Managing Third-Party Software Security Risks," Gartner Research

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Exam Name: CompTIA SecurityX Certification Exam
Certification Name: CompTIA CASP

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