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CAS-005 Practice Questions

Question # 1
A security architect wants to develop a baseline of security configurations These configurations automatically will be utilized machine is created Which of the following technologies should the security architect deploy to accomplish this goal?
A. Short
B. GASB
C. Ansible
D. CMDB


C. Ansible

Explanation:

To develop a baseline of security configurations that will be automatically utilized when a machine is created, the security architect should deploy Ansible. Here’s why: Automation: Ansible is an automation tool that allows for the configuration, management, and deployment of applications and systems. It ensures that security configurations are consistently applied across all new machines. Scalability: Ansible can scale to manage thousands of machines, making it suitable for large enterprises that need to maintain consistent security configurations across their infrastructure.

Compliance: By using Ansible, organizations can enforce compliance with security policies and standards, ensuring that all systems are configured according to best practices.



Question # 2
A systems administrator wants to introduce a newly released feature for an internal application. The administrate docs not want to test the feature in the production environment. Which of the following locations is the best place to test the new feature?
A. Staging environment
B. Testing environment
C. CI/CO pipeline
D. Development environment


A. Staging environment

Explanation:

The best location to test a newly released feature for an internal application, without affecting the production environment, is the staging environment. Here’s a detailed explanation:

Staging Environment: This environment closely mirrors the production environment in terms of hardware, software, configurations, and settings. It serves as a final testing ground before deploying changes to production. Testing in the staging environment ensures that the new feature will behave as expected in the actual production setup.

Isolation from Production: The staging environment is isolated from production, which means any issues arising from the new feature will not impact the live users or the integrity of the production data. This aligns with best practices in change management and risk mitigation.

Realistic Testing: Since the staging environment replicates the production environment, it provides realistic testing conditions. This helps in identifying potential issues that might not be apparent in a development or testing environment, which often have different configurations and workloads.



Question # 3
A global manufacturing company has an internal application mat is critical to making products This application cannot be updated and must Be available in the production area A security architect is implementing security for the application. Which of the following best describes the action the architect should take-?
A. Disallow wireless access to the application.
B. Deploy Intrusion detection capabilities using a network tap
C. Create an acceptable use policy for the use of the application
D. Create a separate network for users who need access to the application


D. Create a separate network for users who need access to the application

Explanation:

Creating a separate network for users who need access to the application is the best action to secure an internal application that is critical to the production area and cannot be updated.

Why Separate Network?

Network Segmentation: Isolates the critical application from the rest of the network, reducing the risk of compromise and limiting the potential impact of any security incidents.

Controlled Access: Ensures that only authorized users have access to the application, enhancing security and reducing the attack surface. Minimized Risk: Segmentation helps in protecting the application from vulnerabilities that could be exploited from other parts of the network. Other options, while beneficial, do not provide the same level of security for a critical application:

A. Disallow wireless access: Useful but does not provide comprehensive protection.

B. Deploy intrusion detection capabilities using a network tap: Enhances monitoring but does not provide the same level of isolation and control.

C. Create an acceptable use policy: Important for governance but does not provide technical security controls.

References:

CompTIA SecurityX Study Guide

NIST Special Publication 800-125, "Guide to Security for Full Virtualization Technologies"

"Network Segmentation Best Practices," Cisco Documentation



Question # 4
A company recently experienced an incident in which an advanced threat actor was able to shim malicious code against the hardware static of a domain controller The forensic team cryptographically validated that com the underlying firmware of the box and the operating system had not been compromised. However, the attacker was able to exfiltrate information from the server using a steganographic technique within LOAP Which of the following is me b»« way to reduce the risk oi reoccurrence?
A. Enforcing allow lists for authorized network pons and protocols
B. Measuring and attesting to the entire boot chum
C. Rolling the cryptographic keys used for hardware security modules
D. Using code signing to verify the source of OS updates


A. Enforcing allow lists for authorized network pons and protocols

Explanation:

The scenario describes a sophisticated attack where the threat actor used steganography within LDAP to exfiltrate data. Given that the hardware and OS firmware were validated and found uncompromised, the attack vector likely exploited a network communication channel. To mitigate such risks, enforcing allow lists for authorized network ports and protocols is the most effective strategy.

Here’s why this option is optimal:

Port and Protocol Restrictions: By creating an allow list, the organization can restrict communications to only those ports and protocols that are necessary for legitimate business operations. This reduces the attack surface by preventing unauthorized or unusual traffic.

Network Segmentation: Enforcing such rules helps in segmenting the network and ensuring that only approved communications occur, which is critical in preventing data exfiltration methods like steganography.

Preventing Unauthorized Access: Allow lists ensure that only predefined, trusted connections are allowed, blocking potential paths that attackers could use to infiltrate or exfiltrate data.

Other options, while beneficial in different contexts, are not directly addressing the network communication threat:

B. Measuring and attesting to the entire boot chain: While this improves system integrity, it doesn’t directly mitigate the risk of data exfiltration through network channels.

C. Rolling the cryptographic keys used for hardware security modules: This is useful for securing data and communications but doesn’t directly address the specific method of exfiltration described.

D. Using code signing to verify the source of OS updates: Ensures updates are from legitimate sources, but it doesn’t mitigate the risk of network-based data exfiltration.

References:

CompTIA SecurityX Study Guide

NIST Special Publication 800-41, "Guidelines on Firewalls and Firewall Policy"

CIS Controls Version 8, Control 9: Limitation and Control of Network Ports,

Protocols, and Services



Question # 5
Audit findings indicate several user endpoints are not utilizing full disk encryption During me remediation process, a compliance analyst reviews the testing details for the endpoints and notes the endpoint device configuration does not support full disk encryption Which of the following is the most likely reason me device must be replaced'
A. The HSM is outdated and no longer supported by the manufacturer
B. The vTPM was not properly initialized and is corrupt.
C. The HSM is vulnerable to common exploits and a firmware upgrade is needed
D. The motherboard was not configured with a TPM from the OEM supplier
E. The HSM does not support sealing storage


D. The motherboard was not configured with a TPM from the OEM supplier

The most likely reason the device must be replaced is that the motherboard was not configured with a TPM (Trusted Platform Module) from the OEM (Original Equipment Manufacturer) supplier.
Why TPM is Necessary for Full Disk Encryption:
Hardware-Based Security: TPM provides a hardware-based mechanism to store encryption keys securely, which is essential for full disk encryption.
Compatibility: Full disk encryption solutions, such as BitLocker, require TPM to ensure that the encryption keys are securely stored and managed.
Integrity Checks: TPM enables system integrity checks during boot, ensuring that the device has not been tampered with.
Other options do not directly address the requirement for TPM in supporting full disk encryption:
A. The HSM is outdated: While HSM (Hardware Security Module) is important for security, it is not typically used for full disk encryption.
B. The vTPM was not properly initialized: vTPM (virtual TPM) is less common and not typically a reason for requiring hardware replacement.
C. The HSM is vulnerable to common exploits: This would require a firmware upgrade, not replacement of the device.
E. The HSM does not support sealing storage: Sealing storage is relevant but not the primary reason for requiring TPM for full disk encryption.
References:
CompTIA SecurityX Study Guide
"Trusted Platform Module (TPM) Overview," Microsoft Documentation
"BitLocker Deployment Guide," Microsoft Documentation


Question # 6
A security architect for a global organization with a distributed workforce recently received funding lo deploy a CASB solution Which of the following most likely explains the choice to use a proxy-based CASB?
A. The capability to block unapproved applications and services is possible
B. Privacy compliance obligations are bypassed when using a user-based deployment.
C. Protecting and regularly rotating API secret keys requires a significant time commitment
D. Corporate devices cannot receive certificates when not connected to on-premises devices


A. The capability to block unapproved applications and services is possible

Explanation:

A proxy-based Cloud Access Security Broker (CASB) is chosen primarily for its ability to block unapproved applications and services. Here’s why: Application and Service Control: Proxy-based CASBs can monitor and control the use of applications and services by inspecting traffic as it passes through the proxy. This allows the organization to enforce policies that block unapproved applications and services, ensuring compliance with security policies.

Visibility and Monitoring: By routing traffic through the proxy, the CASB can provide detailed visibility into user activities and data flows, enabling better monitoring and threat detection.

Real-Time Protection: Proxy-based CASBs can provide real-time protection against threats by analyzing and controlling traffic before it reaches the end user, thus preventing the use of risky applications and services.



Question # 7
A user submits a help desk ticket stating then account does not authenticate sometimes. An analyst reviews the following logs for the user: Which of the following best explains the reason the user's access is being denied?
A. incorrectly typed password
B. Time-based access restrictions
C. Account compromise
D. Invalid user-to-device bindings


B. Time-based access restrictions

Explanation:

The logs reviewed for the user indicate that access is being denied due to time-based access restrictions. These restrictions are commonly implemented to limit access to systems during specific hours to enhance security. If a user attempts to authenticate outside of the allowed time window, access will be denied. This measure helps prevent unauthorized access during non-business hours, reducing the risk of security incidents.

References:

CompTIA SecurityX Study Guide: Covers various access control methods, including time-based restrictions, as a means of enhancing security. NIST Special Publication 800-53, "Security and Privacy Controls for Information Systems and Organizations": Recommends the use of time-based access restrictions as part of access control policies.

"Access Control and Identity Management" by Mike Chapple and Aaron French: Discusses the implementation and benefits of time-based access restrictions.



Question # 8
A security analyst Detected unusual network traffic related to program updating processes The analyst collected artifacts from compromised user workstations. The discovered artifacts were binary files with the same name as existing, valid binaries but. with different hashes which of the following solutions would most likely prevent this situation from reoccurring?
A. Improving patching processes
B. Implementing digital signature
C. Performing manual updates via USB ports
D. Allowing only dies from internal sources


B. Implementing digital signature

Explanation:

Implementing digital signatures ensures the integrity and authenticity of software binaries. When a binary is digitally signed, any tampering with the file (e.g., replacing it with a malicious version) would invalidate the signature. This allows systems to verify the origin and integrity of binaries before execution, preventing the execution of unauthorized or compromised binaries.

A. Improving patching processes: While important, this does not directly address the issue of verifying the integrity of binaries.

B. Implementing digital signatures: This ensures that only valid, untampered binaries are executed, preventing attackers from substituting legitimate binaries with malicious ones.

C. Performing manual updates via USB ports: This is not practical and does not scale well, especially in large environments.

D. Allowing only files from internal sources: This reduces the risk but does not provide a mechanism to verify the integrity of binaries.

References:

CompTIA Security+ Study Guide

NIST SP 800-57, "Recommendation for Key Management"

OWASP (Open Web Application Security Project) guidelines on code signing



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CompTIA CAS-005 Exam Dumps

Exam Name: CompTIA SecurityX Certification Exam
Certification Name: CompTIA CASP

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  • Total Questions: 136
  • Last Updation Date: 17-Feb-2025

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