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CAS-005 Practice Questions

Question # 1
Asecuntv administrator is performing a gap assessment against a specific OS benchmark The benchmark requires the following configurations be applied to endpomts:
• Full disk encryption
* Host-based firewall
• Time synchronization
* Password policies
• Application allow listing
* Zero Trust application access
Which of the following solutions best addresses the requirements? (Select two).
A. CASB
B. SBoM
C. SCAP
D. SASE
E. HIDS


C. SCAP
D. SASE

To address the specific OS benchmark configurations, the following solutions are most appropriate:
C. SCAP (Security Content Automation Protocol): SCAP helps in automating vulnerability management and policy compliance, including configurations like full disk encryption, host-based firewalls, and password policies.
D. SASE (Secure Access Service Edge): SASE provides a framework for Zero Trust network access and application allow listing, ensuring secure and compliant access to applications and data.
These solutions together cover the comprehensive security requirements specified in the OS benchmark, ensuring a robust security posture for endpoints.
References:
CompTIA SecurityX Study Guide: Discusses SCAP and SASE as part of security configuration management and Zero Trust architectures. NIST Special Publication 800-126, "The Technical Specification for the Security Content Automation Protocol (SCAP)": Details SCAP's role in security automation.
"Zero Trust Networks: Building Secure Systems in Untrusted Networks" by Evan Gilman and Doug Barth: Covers the principles of Zero Trust and how SASE can implement them. By implementing SCAP and SASE, the organization ensures that all the specified security configurations are applied and maintained effectively.


Question # 2
Users must accept the terms presented in a captive petal when connecting to a guest network. Recently, users have reported that they are unable to access the Internet after joining the network A network engineer observes the following:

• Users should be redirected to the captive portal.
• The Motive portal runs Tl. S 1 2
• Newer browser versions encounter security errors that cannot be bypassed
• Certain websites cause unexpected re directs
Which of the following mow likely explains this behavior?
A. The TLS ciphers supported by the captive portal ate deprecated
B. Employment of the HSTS setting is proliferating rapidly.
C. Allowed traffic rules are causing the NIPS to drop legitimate traffic
D. An attacker is redirecting supplicants to an evil twin WLAN.


A. The TLS ciphers supported by the captive portal ate deprecated

The most likely explanation for the issues encountered with the captive portal is that the TLS ciphers supported by the captive portal are deprecated. Here’s why: TLS Cipher Suites: Modern browsers are continuously updated to support the latest security standards and often drop support for deprecated and insecure cipher suites. If the captive portal uses outdated TLS ciphers, newer browsers may refuse to connect, causing security errors.
HSTS and Browser Security: Browsers with HTTP Strict Transport Security (HSTS) enabled will not allow connections to sites with weak security configurations. Deprecated TLS ciphers would cause these browsers to block the connection.
References:
By updating the TLS ciphers to modern, supported ones, the security engineer can ensure compatibility with newer browser versions and resolve the connectivity issues reported by users.


Question # 3
The material finding from a recent compliance audit indicate a company has an issue with excessive permissions. The findings show that employees changing roles or departments results in privilege creep. Which of the following solutions are the best ways to mitigate this issue? (Select two).

Setting different access controls defined by business area

A. Implementing a role-based access policy
B. Designing a least-needed privilege policy
C. Establishing a mandatory vacation policy
D. Performing periodic access reviews
E. Requiring periodic job rotation


A. Implementing a role-based access policy

D. Performing periodic access reviews

Explanation:

To mitigate the issue of excessive permissions and privilege creep, the best solutions are: Implementing a Role-Based Access Policy:

Role-Based Access Control (RBAC): This policy ensures that access permissions are granted based on the user's role within the organization, aligning with the principle of least privilege. Users are only granted access necessary for their role, reducing the risk of excessive permissions.

References:

CompTIA Security+ SY0-601 Study Guide by Mike Chapple and David Seidl NIST Special Publication 800-53: Security and Privacy Controls for Information Systems and Organizations

Performing Periodic Access Reviews:

Regular Audits: Periodic access reviews help identify and rectify instances of privilege creep by ensuring that users' access permissions are appropriate for their current roles. These reviews can highlight unnecessary or outdated permissions, allowing for timely adjustments.

References:

CompTIA Security+ SY0-601 Study Guide by Mike Chapple and David Seidl

ISO/IEC 27001:2013 - Information Security Management



Question # 4
Third parties notified a company's security team about vulnerabilities in the company's application. The security team determined these vulnerabilities were previously disclosed in third-party libraries. Which of the following solutions best addresses the reported vulnerabilities?
A. Using laC to include the newest dependencies
B. Creating a bug bounty program
C. Implementing a continuous security assessment program
D. Integrating a SASI tool as part of the pipeline


D. Integrating a SASI tool as part of the pipeline

Explanation:

The best solution to address reported vulnerabilities in third-party libraries is integrating a Static Application Security Testing (SAST) tool as part of the development pipeline. Here’s why: Early Detection: SAST tools analyze source code for vulnerabilities before the code is compiled. This allows developers to identify and fix security issues early in the development process.

Continuous Security: By integrating SAST tools into the CI/CD pipeline, the organization ensures continuous security assessment of the codebase, including third-party libraries, with each code commit and build.

Comprehensive Analysis: SAST tools provide a detailed analysis of the code, identifying potential vulnerabilities in both proprietary code and third-party dependencies, ensuring that known issues in libraries are addressed promptly.

References:

CompTIA Security+ SY0-601 Study Guide by Mike Chapple and David Seidl

OWASP Static Analysis Security Testing (SAST) Cheat Sheet

NIST Special Publication 800-53: Security and Privacy Controls for Information Systems and Organizations



Question # 5
An audit finding reveals that a legacy platform has not retained loos for more than 30 days The platform has been segmented due to its interoperability with newer technology. As a temporary solution, the IT department changed the log retention to 120 days. Which of the following should the security engineer do to ensure the logs are being properly retained?
A. Configure a scheduled task nightly to save the logs
B. Configure event-based triggers to export the logs at a threshold.
C. Configure the SIEM to aggregate the logs
D. Configure a Python script to move the logs into a SQL database.


C. Configure the SIEM to aggregate the logs

To ensure that logs from a legacy platform are properly retained beyond the default retention period, configuring the SIEM to aggregate the logs is the best approach. SIEM solutions are designed to collect, aggregate, and store logs from various sources, providing centralized log management and retention. This setup ensures that logs are retained according to policy and can be easily accessed for analysis and compliance purposes.
References:
CompTIA SecurityX Study Guide: Discusses the role of SIEM in log management and retention. NIST Special Publication 800-92, "Guide to Computer Security Log Management": Recommends the use of centralized log management solutions, such as SIEM, for effective log retention and analysis.
"Security Information and Event Management (SIEM) Implementation" by David Miller: Covers best practices for configuring SIEM systems to aggregate and retain logs from various sources.


Question # 6
A developer needs to improve the cryptographic strength of a password-storage component in a web application without completely replacing the crypto-module. Which of the following is the most appropriate technique?
A. Key splitting
B. Key escrow
C. Key rotation
D. Key encryption
E. Key stretching


E. Key stretching

The most appropriate technique to improve the cryptographic strength of a password-storage component in a web application without completely replacing the cryptomodule is key stretching. Here's why:
Enhanced Security: Key stretching algorithms, such as PBKDF2, bcrypt, and scrypt, increase the computational effort required to derive the encryption key from the password, making brute-force attacks more difficult and time-consuming.
Compatibility: Key stretching can be implemented alongside existing cryptographic modules, enhancing their security without the need for a complete overhaul.
Industry Best Practices: Key stretching is a widely recommended practice for securely storing passwords, as it significantly improves resistance to passwordcracking attacks.


Question # 7
Which of the following AI concerns is most adequately addressed by input sanitation?
A. Model inversion
B. Prompt Injection
C. Data poisoning
D. Non-explainable model


B. Prompt Injection

Explanation:

Input sanitation is a critical process in cybersecurity that involves validating and cleaning data provided by users to prevent malicious inputs from causing harm. In the context of AI concerns:

A. Model inversion involves an attacker inferring sensitive data from model outputs, typically requiring sophisticated methods beyond just manipulating input data.

B. Prompt Injection is a form of attack where an adversary provides malicious input to manipulate the behavior of AI models, particularly those dealing with natural language processing (NLP). Input sanitation directly addresses this by ensuring that inputs are cleaned and validated to remove potentially harmful commands or instructions that could alter the AI's behavior.

C. Data poisoning involves injecting malicious data into the training set to compromise the model. While input sanitation can help by filtering out bad data, data poisoning is typically addressed through robust data validation and monitoring during the model training phase, rather than real-time input sanitation.

D. Non-explainable model refers to the lack of transparency in how AI models make decisions. This concern is not addressed by input sanitation, as it relates more to model design and interpretability techniques.

Input sanitation is most relevant and effective for preventing Prompt Injection attacks, where the integrity of user inputs directly impacts the performance and security of AI models.

References:

CompTIA Security+ Study Guide

"Security of Machine Learning" by Battista Biggio, Blaine Nelson, and Pavel Laskov

OWASP (Open Web Application Security Project) guidelines on input validation and injection

attacks Top of Form

Bottom of Form



Question # 8
Which of the following best explains the business requirement a healthcare provider fulfills by encrypting patient data at rest?
A. Securing data transfer between hospitals
B. Providing for non-repudiation data
C. Reducing liability from identity theft
D. Protecting privacy while supporting portability.


D. Protecting privacy while supporting portability.

Explanation:

Encrypting patient data at rest is a critical requirement for healthcare providers to ensure compliance with regulations such as the Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA). The primary business requirement fulfilled by this practice is the protection of patient privacy while supporting the portability of medical information. By encrypting data at rest, healthcare providers safeguard sensitive patient information from unauthorized access, ensuring that privacy is maintained even if the storage media are compromised. Additionally, encryption supports the portability of patient records, allowing for secure transfer and access across different systems and locations while ensuring that privacy controls are in place.

References:

CompTIA SecurityX Study Guide: Emphasizes the importance of data encryption for protecting sensitive information and ensuring compliance with regulatory requirements.

HIPAA Security Rule: Requires healthcare providers to implement safeguards, including encryption, to protect patient data.

"Health Informatics: Practical Guide for Healthcare and Information Technology Professionals" by Robert E. Hoyt: Discusses encryption as a key measure for protecting patient data privacy and supporting data portability.



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CompTIA CAS-005 Exam Dumps

Exam Name: CompTIA SecurityX Certification Exam
Certification Name: CompTIA CASP

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  • Total Questions: 117
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