Question # 1 Which of the following best explains the business requirement a healthcare provider fulfills by encrypting patient data at rest? A. Securing data transfer between hospitals B. Providing for non-repudiation data C. Reducing liability from identity theft D. Protecting privacy while supporting portability.
Click for Answer
D. Protecting privacy while supporting portability.
Answer Description Explanation:
Encrypting patient data at rest is a critical requirement for healthcare providers to ensure compliance with regulations such as the Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA). The primary business requirement fulfilled by this practice is the protection of patient privacy while supporting the portability of medical information. By encrypting data at rest, healthcare providers safeguard sensitive patient information from unauthorized access, ensuring that privacy is maintained even if the storage media are compromised. Additionally, encryption supports the portability of patient records, allowing for secure transfer and access across different systems and locations while ensuring that privacy controls are in place.
References:
CompTIA SecurityX Study Guide: Emphasizes the importance of data encryption for protecting sensitive information and ensuring compliance with regulatory requirements.
HIPAA Security Rule: Requires healthcare providers to implement safeguards, including encryption, to protect patient data.
"Health Informatics: Practical Guide for Healthcare and Information Technology Professionals" by Robert E. Hoyt: Discusses encryption as a key measure for protecting patient data privacy and supporting data portability.
Question # 2 A company wants to install a three-tier approach to separate the web. database, and application servers A security administrator must harden the environment which of the following is the best solution?
A. Deploying a VPN to
prevent remote locations from accessing server VLANs B. Configuring a SASb
solution to restrict users to server communication C. Implementing
microsegmentation on the server VLANs D. installing a firewall
and making it the network core
Click for Answer
C. Implementing
microsegmentation on the server VLANs
Answer Description The best solution to harden a three-tier environment (web, database, and application servers) is to implement microsegmentation on the server VLANs. Here’s why: Enhanced Security: Microsegmentation creates granular security zones within the data center, allowing for more precise control over east-west traffic between servers. This helps prevent lateral movement by attackers who may gain access to one part of the network.
Isolation of Tiers: By segmenting the web, database, and application servers, the organization can apply specific security policies and controls to each segment, reducing the risk of cross-tier attacks. Compliance and Best Practices: Microsegmentation aligns with best practices for network security and helps meet compliance requirements by ensuring that
sensitive data and systems are properly isolated and protected.
References:
Question # 3 A security engineer performed a code scan that resulted in many false positives. The security engineer must find a solution that improves the quality of scanning results before application deployment. Which of the following is the best solution?
A. Limiting the tool to
a specific coding language and tuning the rule set B. Configuring branch
protection rules and dependency checks C. Using an application
vulnerability scanner to identify coding flaws in production D. Performing updates on code libraries before code development
Click for Answer
A. Limiting the tool to
a specific coding language and tuning the rule set
Answer Description To improve the quality of code scanning results and reduce false positives, the best solution is to limit the tool to a specific coding language and fine-tune the rule set. By configuring the code scanning tool to focus on the specific language used in the application, the tool can more accurately identify relevant issues and reduce the number of
false positives. Additionally, tuning the rule set ensures that the tool's checks are appropriate for the application's context, further improving the accuracy of the scan results.
References:
CompTIA SecurityX Study Guide: Discusses best practices for configuring code scanning tools, including language-specific tuning and rule set adjustments.
"Secure Coding: Principles and Practices" by Mark G. Graff and Kenneth R. van Wyk: Highlights the importance of customizing code analysis tools to reduce false positives.
OWASP (Open Web Application Security Project): Provides guidelines for configuring and tuning code scanning tools to improve accuracy.
Question # 4 A security configure is building a solution to disable weak CBC configuration for remote access connections lo Linux systems. Which of the following should the security engineer modify? A. The /etc/openssl.conf file, updating the virtual site parameter B. The /etc/nsswith.conf file, updating the name server C. The /etc/hosts file, updating the IP parameter D. The /etc/etc/sshd, configure file updating the ciphers
Click for Answer
D. The /etc/etc/sshd, configure file updating the ciphers
Answer Description Explanation:
The sshd_config file is the main configuration file for the OpenSSH server. To disable weak CBC (Cipher Block Chaining) ciphers for SSH connections, the security engineer should modify the sshd_config file to update the list of allowed ciphers. This file typically contains settings for the SSH daemon, including which encryption algorithms are allowed.
By editing the /etc/ssh/sshd_config file and updating the Ciphers directive, weak ciphers can be removed, and only strong ciphers can be allowed. This change ensures that the SSH server does not use insecure encryption methods.
References:
CompTIA Security+ Study Guide
OpenSSH manual pages (man sshd_config)
CIS Benchmarks for Linux
Question # 5 Third parties notified a company's security team about vulnerabilities in the company's application. The security team determined these vulnerabilities were previously disclosed in third-party libraries. Which of the following solutions best addresses the reported vulnerabilities? A. Using laC to include the newest dependencies B. Creating a bug bounty program C. Implementing a continuous security assessment program D. Integrating a SASI tool as part of the pipeline
Click for Answer
D. Integrating a SASI tool as part of the pipeline
Answer Description Explanation:
The best solution to address reported vulnerabilities in third-party libraries is integrating a Static Application Security Testing (SAST) tool as part of the development pipeline. Here’s why:
Early Detection: SAST tools analyze source code for vulnerabilities before the code is compiled. This allows developers to identify and fix security issues early in the development process.
Continuous Security: By integrating SAST tools into the CI/CD pipeline, the organization ensures continuous security assessment of the codebase, including third-party libraries, with each code commit and build.
Comprehensive Analysis: SAST tools provide a detailed analysis of the code, identifying potential vulnerabilities in both proprietary code and third-party dependencies, ensuring that known issues in libraries are addressed promptly.
References:
CompTIA Security+ SY0-601 Study Guide by Mike Chapple and David Seidl
OWASP Static Analysis Security Testing (SAST) Cheat Sheet
NIST Special Publication 800-53: Security and Privacy Controls for Information Systems and Organizations
Question # 6 A systems administrator wants to reduce the number of failed patch deployments in an organization. The administrator discovers that system owners modify systems or applications in an ad hoc manner. Which of the following is the best way to reduce the number of failed patch deployments? A. Compliance tracking B. Situational awareness C. Change management D. Quality assurance
Click for Answer
C. Change management
Answer Description Explanation:
To reduce the number of failed patch deployments, the systems administrator should implement a robust change management process. Change management ensures that all modifications to systems or applications are planned, tested, and approved before deployment. This systematic approach reduces the risk of unplanned changes that can cause patch failures and ensures that patches are deployed in a controlled and predictable manner.
References:
CompTIA SecurityX Study Guide: Emphasizes the importance of change management in maintaining system integrity and ensuring successful patch deployments.
ITIL (Information Technology Infrastructure Library) Framework: Provides best practices for change management in IT services.
"The Phoenix Project" by Gene Kim, Kevin Behr, and George Spafford: Discusses the critical role of change management in IT operations and its impact on system stability and reliability.
Question # 7 The material finding from a recent compliance audit indicate a company has an issue with excessive permissions. The findings show that employees changing roles or departments results in privilege creep. Which of the following solutions are the best ways to mitigate this issue? (Select two).
Setting different access controls defined by business area
A. Implementing a role-based access policy B. Designing a least-needed privilege policy C. Establishing a mandatory vacation policy D. Performing periodic access reviews E. Requiring periodic job rotation
Click for Answer
A. Implementing a role-based access policy D. Performing periodic access reviews
Answer Description Explanation:
To mitigate the issue of excessive permissions and privilege creep, the best solutions are:
Implementing a Role-Based Access Policy:
Role-Based Access Control (RBAC): This policy ensures that access permissions are granted based on the user's role within the organization, aligning with the principle of least privilege. Users are only granted access necessary for their role, reducing the risk of excessive permissions.
References:
CompTIA Security+ SY0-601 Study Guide by Mike Chapple and David Seidl
NIST Special Publication 800-53: Security and Privacy Controls for Information Systems and Organizations
Performing Periodic Access Reviews:
Regular Audits: Periodic access reviews help identify and rectify instances of privilege creep by ensuring that users' access permissions are appropriate for their current roles. These reviews can highlight unnecessary or outdated permissions, allowing for timely adjustments.
References:
CompTIA Security+ SY0-601 Study Guide by Mike Chapple and David Seidl
ISO/IEC 27001:2013 - Information Security Management
Question # 8 A software development team requires valid data for internal tests. Company regulations, however do not allow the use of this data in cleartext. Which of the following solutions best meet these requirements? A. Configuring data hashing B. Deploying tokenization C. Replacing data with null record D. Implementing data obfuscation
Click for Answer
B. Deploying tokenization
Answer Description Explanation:
Tokenization replaces sensitive data elements with non-sensitive equivalents, called tokens, that can be used within the internal tests. The original data is stored securely and can be retrieved if necessary. This approach allows the software development team to work with data that appears realistic and valid without exposing the actual sensitive information.
Configuring data hashing (Option A) is not suitable for test data as it transforms the data into a fixed-length value that is not usable in the same way as the original data. Replacing data with null records (Option C) is not useful as it does not provide valid data for testing. Data obfuscation (Option D) could be an alternative but might not meet the regulatory requirements as effectively as tokenization.
References:
CompTIA Security+ Study Guide
NIST SP 800-57 Part 1 Rev. 5, "Recommendation for Key Management"
PCI DSS Tokenization Guidelines
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