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CIFC Practice Questions

Question # 1
Loretta is looking for a well diversified equity fund. Her ideal mutual fund would hold investments within and outside Canada. Although she is seeking growth, Loretta also wants a mutual fund that invests in quality companies.

Which of the following mutual funds would be the best choice for Loretta?
A. Dominion International Growth Fund - this international equity fund invests in small and medium sized companies in countries all around the world.
B. Polar Global Blue Chip Equity Fund - this global equity fund invests in large, established companies in mostly stable and mature foreign markets.
C. Lennox Energy Fund - this sector fund invests primarily in Canadian oil and gas companies that sell both to domestic and foreign markets.
D. Auric Precious Metals Fund - this sector fund invests in Canadian companies that participate in the precious metals sector such as owning mines in foreign countries.


B. Polar Global Blue Chip Equity Fund - this global equity fund invests in large, established companies in mostly stable and mature foreign markets.

Explanation:

Loretta is looking for a well diversified equity fund that invests both within and outside Canada. She also wants a fund that invests in quality companies, which implies that she prefers lower risk and higher stability. A global equity fund would meet her criteria, as it can invest in any country, including Canada, and diversify across different regions and markets. A global equity fund that focuses on large, established companies, also known as blue chip stocks, would also suit her preference for quality and stability, as these companies tend to have strong financial performance, competitive advantages, and consistent dividends. Therefore, the Polar Global Blue Chip Equity Fund would be the best choice for Loretta among the given options.

References: Canadian Investment Funds Course, Unit 6, Section 6.2



Question # 2
On January 2nd of this year Evan purchased 500 preferred shares of Ingram Ltd. The preferred shares have a par value of $25 per share and a quarterly dividend of $0.98 per share. They also give Evan the option to sell the shares back to Ingram at par value any time from now until September 1st two years from now. What type of preferred shares does Evan own?
A. retractable
B. convertible
C. participating
D. redeemable


A. retractable

Explanation:

Retractable preferred shares are those that give the holder the option to sell them back to the issuer at a predetermined price and date. This is the case for Evan, who can sell his shares back to Ingram at par value any time from now until September 1st two years from now. References: Canadian Investment Funds Course (CIFC) | IFSE Institute


Question # 3
Dakota is a Dealing Representative with Harvest Wealth Inc., a mutual fund dealer. Dakota starts a marketing campaign to contact prospective new clients and increase sales with existing clients. Which of the following CORRECTLY describes activities that Dakota can engage in under her marketing campaign?
A. Dakota can make telemarketing calls to clients who are listed on the National Do Not Call List
B. Dakota can send promotional emails to clients who have opted into Harvest Wealth's Do Not Call List
C. Dakota can send promotional emails to clients who have opted in to receive commercial electronic messages (CEMs).
D. Dakota can make telemarketing calls to clients who have opted in to receive commercial electronic messages (CEMs).


C. Dakota can send promotional emails to clients who have opted in to receive commercial electronic messages (CEMs).

Explanation:

Dakota can send promotional emails to clients who have opted in to receive commercial electronic messages (CEMs). A CEM is any electronic message that encourages participation in a commercial activity, such as an email, a text message, or a social media message. Under Canada’s anti-spam legislation (CASL), Dakota must obtain consent from the recipients before sending CEMs, either explicitly (e.g., by asking them to sign up for a newsletter) or implicitly (e.g., by having an existing business relationship with them). Dakota must also identify himself and his dealer, provide contact information, and include an unsubscribe mechanism in every CEM. The other statements are incorrect. Dakota cannot make telemarketing calls to clients who are listed on the National Do Not Call List (DNCL). The DNCL is a list of telephone numbers of consumers who do not want to receive unsolicited telemarketing calls. Under the Telecommunications Act, Dakota must register with the National DNCL operator, subscribe to the National DNCL, and avoid calling any number on the list, unless he has express consent from the consumer or an exemption applies. Dakota cannot send promotional emails to clients who have opted into Harvest Wealth’s Do Not Call List. A Do Not Call List is a list of telephone numbers of consumers who do not want to receive telemarketing calls from a specific organization.

Under the Telecommunications Act, Dakota must maintain an internal Do Not Call List for his dealer and respect the requests of consumers who ask not to be called by his dealer. However, this does not mean that he can send promotional emails to those consumers, as that would violate CASL. Dakota cannot make telemarketing calls to clients who have opted in to receive commercial electronic messages (CEMs). Opting in to receive CEMs does not imply consent to receive telemarketing calls, as they are different forms of communication governed by different laws . Dakota must obtain separate consent from the clients before making telemarketing calls to them, either explicitly or implicitly.

References: [Canada’s anti-spam legislation], [National Do Not Call List]



Question # 4
Your client, Rinaldo, wants to know more about the fees associated with his mutual funds. What can you tell him about a mutual fund’s management expense ratio (MER)?
A. Mutual funds are required to calculate the MER on a daily basis.
B. Trailer and brokerage fees are charged separately from the MER.
C. The MER reflects the percentage of each dollar of fund assets that is used to pay for management services.
D. Mutual fund performance is not impacted by the MER since rates of return are published net of fees.


C. The MER reflects the percentage of each dollar of fund assets that is used to pay for management services.

Explanation:

C is correct because the management expense ratio (MER) reflects the percentage of each dollar of fund assets that is used to pay for management services and operating expenses of a mutual fund. The MER includes various fees and expenses, such as management fees, administration fees, trailer fees, audit fees, legal fees, and taxes. The MER reduces the return of the fund, as it is deducted from the fund’s income and capital gains before they are distributed to investors. Mutual funds are not required to calculate the MER on a daily basis (A), but rather on an annual basis. Trailer and brokerage fees are included in the MER (B), not charged separately. Mutual fund performance is impacted by the MER (D), as it lowers the net return of the fund. Rates of return are published net of fees, but they do not reflect the impact of the MER on the fund’s performance.

References:

Canadian Investment Funds Course (CIFC) | IFSE Institute


Question # 5
Maalik opens an account for a new client, John. During the new account process, Maalik determines that he will need to confirm John’s identity. Which of the following statements about Maalik’s identification requirements is CORRECT?
A. If Maalik determines that there is anything suspicious about John’s transaction, he is required to report the matter to his dealer. The dealer must report the matter to the Financial Transactions and Reports Analysis Centre of Canada (FINTRAC).
B. If Maalik learns that John is the president of a state-owned company, Maalik is required to report John as a Politically Exposed Foreign Person (PEFP) to his dealer. If John is not a US person, the dealer must report the account to the Internal Revenue Service (IRS).
C. If John wants to make a large cash deposit of $10,000 or more, Maalik is required to collect personal information about John and report it to his dealer. The dealer must report the information to the Canada Revenue Agency (CRA).
D. If John attempts to make a suspicious deposit, Maalik is required to report the attempt to his dealer. The dealer must keep records of attempted suspicious transactions that are not reported to the Financial Transactions and Reports Analysis Centre of Canada (FINTRAC).


A. If Maalik determines that there is anything suspicious about John’s transaction, he is required to report the matter to his dealer. The dealer must report the matter to the Financial Transactions and Reports Analysis Centre of Canada (FINTRAC).

Explanation:

The statement that is correct about Maalik’s identification requirements is option A. According to Section 7 of the Proceeds of Crime (Money Laundering) and Terrorist Financing Act (PCMLTFA), registered firms and individuals must report any suspicious transactions or attempted transactions to FINTRAC, which is Canada’s financial intelligence unit that collects, analyzes, and discloses information related to money laundering and terrorist financing activities. A suspicious transaction or attempted transaction is one that there are reasonable grounds to suspect that it is related to a money laundering or terrorist financing offence. Therefore, if Maalik determines that there is anything suspicious about John’s transaction, he must report the matter to his dealer, who must report it to FINTRAC within 30 days of making the determination. The other statements are not correct about Maalik’s identification requirements. Option B is false because Maalik does not need to report John as a PEFP to his dealer; rather, he must take reasonable measures to determine whether John is a PEFP or a family member or close associate of a PEFP, and if so, he must obtain senior management approval before opening an account for John, take enhanced measures to verify John’s identity, and conduct enhanced ongoing monitoring of John’s account activity. Option C is false because Maalik does not need to collect personal information about John and report it to his dealer if John wants to make a large cash deposit; rather, he must verify John’s identity using an original, valid, and current document or information from a reliable source, keep a record of John’s name and address and the date and amount of the deposit, and report any large cash transactions of $10,000 or more in Canadian currency or its equivalent to FINTRAC within 15 days of receiving the cash. Option D is false because Maalik does not need to report the attempt to his dealer if John attempts to make a suspicious deposit; rather, he must report the attempt directly to FINTRAC within 30 days of detecting the suspicion, regardless of whether the transaction was completed or not.

References:

[FINTRAC - Home], [FINTRAC - Reporting], [FINTRAC - Guideline 2: Suspicious Transactions], [FINTRAC - Guideline 6A: Record Keeping and Client Identification for Financial Entities]


Question # 6
What does a normal yield curve look like?
A. slopes upward to the left
B. is flat and has no slope
C. slopes down to the right
D. slopes upward to the right


D. slopes upward to the right

Explanation:

A normal yield curve is a graphical representation of the relationship between the interest rates and the maturities of different fixed income securities. It slopes upward to the right, meaning that longer-term bonds have higher yields than shorter-term bonds. This reflects the fact that investors demand higher compensation for lending money for longer periods of time and taking on more risk. A normal yield curve indicates that investors expect the economy to grow steadily and inflation to remain stable.

References:

Canadian Investment Funds Course (CIFC) | IFSE Institute, Unit 4, Lesson 3


Question # 7
Ken is a member of his employer’s Defined Benefit Pension Plan (DBPP). Which of the following statements about Ken’s plan is CORRECT?
A. Contributions to the plan do not result in a Pension Adjustment (PA) for Ken.
B. The amount Ken receives in retirement depends on the performance of the investments he has selected within the plan.
C. The amount that Ken will receive at retirement is not guaranteed.
D. Income received from the plan is eligible for pension income splitting even if Ken retires before 65.


D. Income received from the plan is eligible for pension income splitting even if Ken retires before 65.

Explanation:

The statement that is correct about Ken’s plan is option D. A defined benefit pension plan (DBPP) is a type of employer-sponsored retirement plan that promises to pay a specified amount of income to the plan member upon retirement. The amount of income is based on a formula that considers factors such as years of service, salary, and age. Income received from a DBPP is eligible for pension income splitting even if Ken retires before 65, meaning that he can transfer up to 50% of his eligible pension income to his spouse or common-law partner for tax purposes. This can reduce the overall tax payable by the couple if they are in different tax brackets. Therefore, option D is correct about Ken’s plan. The other statements are not correct about Ken’s plan. Option A is false because contributions to the plan do result in a Pension Adjustment (PA) for Ken, which is an amount that reduces his RRSP contribution room for the following year. Option B is false because the amount Ken receives in retirement does not depend on the performance of the investments he has selected within the plan; rather, it depends on the formula that determines his pension benefit. Option C is false because the amount that Ken will receive at retirement is guaranteed by the plan sponsor, unless the plan sponsor becomes insolvent or terminates the plan.

References:

[Defined Benefit Pension Plans | GetSmarterAboutMoney.ca], [Pension Income Splitting | GetSmarterAboutMoney.ca], [Pension Adjustment (PA) | GetSmarterAboutMoney.ca]



Question # 8
Which statement CORRECTLY describes index mutual funds and traditional exchange-traded funds (ETFs)?
A. Index funds use an active investment management style, whereas ETFs use a passive investment management style.
B. Both types of funds are closed-end investments that are required to hold the same securities as the index at all times.
C. The market price of an ETF must match its net asset value (NAV), whereas there can be discrepancy in the pricing of index funds.
D. Both types of funds attempt to replicate the return of a specific market index, but their returns may not perfectly match the index.


A. Index funds use an active investment management style, whereas ETFs use a passive investment management style.

Explanation:

Index mutual funds and traditional exchange-traded funds (ETFs) are both types of investment funds that use a passive investment management style, which means they try to track the performance of a specific market index, such as the S&P/TSX Composite Index or the S&P 500 Index. They do so by holding the same securities as the index or a representative sample of them, and by adjusting their portfolio composition and weighting to reflect any changes in the index. However, both types of funds may not be able to exactly replicate the return of the index for various reasons, such as fees, expenses, tracking error, rebalancing frequency, dividend reinvestment, and cash holdings. Therefore, there may be some deviation or difference between the fund’s return and the index’s return, which is called tracking difference.

References:

Canadian Investment Funds Course, Chapter 4: Types of Investments1


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IFSE Institute CIFC Exam Dumps

Exam Name: Canadian Investment Funds Course Exam
Certification Name: Investments & Banking

IFSE Institute CIFC exam dumps are created by industry top professionals and after that its also verified by expert team. We are providing you updated Canadian Investment Funds Course Exam exam questions answers. We keep updating our Investments & Banking practice test according to real exam. So prepare from our latest questions answers and pass your exam.

  • Total Questions: 224
  • Last Updation Date: 16-Jan-2025

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