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N10-009 Practice Questions

Question # 1
A network administrator needs to connect two routers in a point-to-point configuration and conserve IP space. Which of the following subnets should the administrator use?
A. 724
B. /26
C. /28
D. /30


D. /30

Explanation: Using a /30 subnet mask is the most efficient way to conserve IP space for a point-to-point connection between two routers. A /30 subnet provides four IP addresses, two of which can be assigned to the router interfaces, one for the network address, and one for the broadcast address. This makes it ideal for point-to-point links where only two usable IP addresses are needed.References: CompTIA Network+ study materials and subnetting principles.

Question # 2
A network administrator needs to set up a multicast network for audio and video broadcasting. Which of the following networks would be the most appropriate for this application?
A. 172.16.0.0/24
B. 192.168.0.0/24
C. 224.0.0.0/24
D. 240.0.0.0/24


C. 224.0.0.0/24

Explanation:
Understanding Multicast:

Multicast IP Address Range: The multicast address range is from 224.0.0.0 to 239.255.255.255, designated for multicast traffic.

Multicast Applications:

Use Case: Multicast is used for one-to-many or many-to-many communication, suitable for applications like audio and video broadcasting where the same data is sent to multiple recipients simultaneously.

Appropriate Network Selection:

224.0.0.0/24 Network: This range is reserved for multicast addresses, making it the appropriate choice for setting up a multicast network.

Comparison with Other Options:

172.16.0.0/24: Part of the private IP address space, used for private networks, not designated for multicast.

192.168.0.0/24: Another private IP address range, also not for multicast.
240.0.0.0/24: Reserved for future use, not suitable for multicast.

References:
CompTIA Network+ study materials on IP address ranges and multicast.

Question # 3
Which of the following connectors provides console access to a switch?
A. ST
B. RJ45
C. BNC
D. SFP


B. RJ45

Explanation:
Console Access:

Purpose: Console access to a switch allows administrators to configure and manage the device directly. This is typically done using a terminal emulator program on a computer.

RJ45 Connector:

Common Use: The RJ45 connector is widely used for Ethernet cables and also for console connections to network devices like switches and routers.
Console Cables: Console cables often have an RJ45 connector on one end (for the switch) and a DB9 serial connector on the other end (for the computer).

Comparison with Other Connectors:

ST (Straight Tip): A fiber optic connector used for networking, not for console access.
BNC (Bayonet Neill-Concelman): A connector used for coaxial cable, typically in older network setups and not for console access.
SFP (Small Form-factor Pluggable): A modular transceiver used for network interfaces, not for console access.

Practical Application:

Connection Process: Connect the RJ45 end of the console cable to the console port of the switch. Connect the DB9 end (or USB via adapter) to the computer. Use a terminal emulator (e.g., PuTTY, Tera Term) to access the switch’s command-line interface (CLI).

References:
CompTIA Network+ study materials on network devices and connectors.

Question # 4
Which of the following would be violated if an employee accidentally deleted a customer's data?
A. Integrity
B. Confidentiality
C. Vulnerability
D. Availability


D. Availability

Explanation: Explanation: Availability refers to ensuring that data is accessible when needed. If a customer's data is accidentally deleted, it impacts availability, as the data can no longer be accessed.

Question # 5
A network administrator is implementing security zones for each department. Which of the following should the administrator use to accomplish this task?
A. ACLs
B. Port security
C. Content filtering
D. NAC


A. ACLs

Explanation:
Understanding ACLs:
Access Control Lists (ACLs): A set of rules used to control network traffic and restrict access to network resources by filtering packets based on IP addresses, protocols, or ports.

Implementing Security Zones:

Defining Zones: ACLs can be used to create security zones by applying specific rules to different departments, ensuring that only authorized traffic is allowed between these zones.
Control Traffic: ACLs control inbound and outbound traffic at network boundaries, enforcing security policies and preventing unauthorized access.

Comparison with Other Options:

Port Security: Limits the number of devices that can connect to a switch port, preventing MAC address flooding attacks, but not used for defining security zones.
Content Filtering: Blocks or allows access to specific content based on predefined policies, typically used for web filtering rather than network segmentation.
NAC (Network Access Control): Controls access to the network based on the security posture of devices but does not define security zones.

Implementation Steps:

Define ACL rules based on the requirements of each department.
Apply these rules to the appropriate network interfaces or firewall policies to segment the network into security zones.

References:
CompTIA Network+ study materials on network security and access control methods.

Question # 6
While troubleshooting a VoIP handset connection, a technician's laptop is able to successfully connect to network resources using the same port. The technician needs to identify the port on the switch. Which of the following should the technician use to determine the switch and port?
A. LLDP
B. IKE
C. VLAN
D. netstat


A. LLDP

Explanation: Link Layer Discovery Protocol (LLDP) is a network protocol used for discovering devices and their capabilities on a local area network, primarily at the data link layer (Layer 2). It helps in identifying the connected switch and the specific port to which a device is connected. When troubleshooting a VoIP handset connection, the technician can use LLDP to determine the exact switch and port where the handset is connected. This protocol is widely used in network management to facilitate the discovery of network topology and simplify troubleshooting.
Other options such as IKE (Internet Key Exchange), VLAN (Virtual LAN), and netstat (network statistics) are not suitable for identifying the switch and port information. IKE is used in setting up secure IPsec connections, VLAN is used for segmenting networks, and netstat provides information about active connections and listening ports on a host but not for discovering switch port details.
[Reference: CompTIA Network+ Certification Exam Objectives - Network Troubleshooting and Tools section., , , ]

Question # 7
Which of the following fiber connector types is the most likely to be used on a network interface card?
A. LC
B. SC
C. ST
D. MPO


A. LC

Explanation:
Definition of Fiber Connector Types:

LC (Lucent Connector): A small form-factor fiber optic connector with a push-pull latching mechanism, commonly used for high-density applications.

SC (Subscriber Connector or Standard Connector): A larger form-factor connector with a push-pull latching mechanism, often used in datacom and telecom applications.

ST (Straight Tip): A bayonet-style connector, typically used in multimode fiber optic networks.

MPO (Multi-fiber Push On): A connector designed to support multiple fibers (typically 12 or 24 fibers), used in high-density cabling environments.

Common Usage:

LC Connectors: Due to their small size, LC connectors are widely used in network interface cards (NICs) and high-density environments such as data centers. They allow for more connections in a smaller space compared to SC and ST connectors.

SC and ST Connectors: These are larger and more commonly used in patch panels and older fiber installations but are less suitable for high-density applications.

MPO Connectors: Primarily used for trunk cables in data centers and high-density applications but not typically on individual network interface cards.

Selection Criteria:

The small form-factor and high-density capabilities of LC connectors make them the preferred choice for network interface cards, where space and connection density are critical considerations.

References:

CompTIA Network+ study materials on fiber optics and connector types.

Question # 8
A network administrator needs to change where the outside DNS records are hosted. Which of the following records should the administrator change the registrar to accomplish this task?
A. NS
B. SOA
C. PTR
D. CNAME


A. NS

Explanation: To change where the outside DNS records are hosted, the network administrator needs to update the NS (Name Server) records at the domain registrar. NS records specify the authoritative name servers for a domain, directing where DNS queries should be sent.
NS (Name Server) Records: These records indicate the servers that are authoritative for a domain. Changing the NS records at the registrar points DNS resolution to the new hosting provider.
SOA (Start of Authority): Contains administrative information about the domain, including the primary name server.
PTR (Pointer) Records: Used for reverse DNS lookups, mapping IP addresses to domain names.
CNAME (Canonical Name) Records: Used to alias one domain name to another, not relevant for changing DNS hosting.

Network References:

CompTIA Network+ N10-007 Official Certification Guide: Discusses DNS records, their purposes, and how to manage them.
Cisco Networking Academy: Provides training on DNS management and the role of different DNS record types.
Network+ Certification All-in-One Exam Guide: Explains DNS records and their configuration for domain management.

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CompTIA N10-009 Exam Dumps

Exam Name: CompTIA Network+ Certification Exam
Certification Name: CompTIA Network+

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