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SPLK-5001 Practice Questions

Question # 1
Which of the following use cases is best suited to be a Splunk SOAR Playbook?
A. Forming hypothesis for Threat Hunting
B. Visualizing complex datasets.
C. Creating persistent field extractions.
D. Taking containment action on a compromised host


D. Taking containment action on a compromised host

Explanation:

Splunk SOAR (Security Orchestration, Automation, and Response) playbooks are designed to automate security tasks, makingtaking containment action on a compromised hostthe best-suited use case. A SOAR playbook can automate the response actions such as isolating a host, blocking IPs, or disabling accounts, based on predefined criteria. This reduces response time and minimizes the impact of security incidents. The other options, like forming hypotheses for threat hunting or visualizing datasets, are more manual processes and less suited for automation via a playbook.


Question # 2
Which search command allows an analyst to match whatever is inside the parentheses as a single term in the index, even if it contains characters that are usually recognized as minor breakers such as periods or underscores?
A. CASE()
B. LIKE()
C. FORMAT ()
D. TERM ()


D. TERM ()

Explanation:

TheTERM()search command in Splunk allows an analyst to match a specific term exactly as it appears, even if it contains characters that are usually considered minor breakers, such as periods or underscores. By usingTERM(), the search engine treats everything inside the parentheses as a single term, which is especially useful for searching log data where certain values (like IP addresses or filenames) should be matched exactly as they appear in the logs.



Question # 3
An analyst would like to test how certain Splunk SPL commands work against a small set of data. What command should start the search pipeline if they wanted to create their own data instead of utilizing data contained within Splunk?
A. makeresults
B. rename
C. eval
D. stats


A. makeresults

Explanation:

Themakeresultscommand in Splunk is used to generate a single-row result that can be used to create test data within a search pipeline. This command is particularly useful for testing and experimenting with SPL commands on a small set of synthetic data without relying on existing logs or events in the Splunk index. It is commonly used by analysts who want to test commands or SPL syntax before applying them to real data.



Question # 4
An analysis of an organization’s security posture determined that a particular asset is at risk and a new process or solution should be implemented to protect it. Typically, who would be in charge of implementing the new process or solution that was selected?
A. Security Architect
B. SOC Manager
C. Security Engineer
D. Security Analyst


C. Security Engineer

Explanation:

In most organizations, the Security Engineer is typically responsible for implementing new processes or solutions that have been selected to protect assets. This role involves the practical application of security tools, technologies, and practices to safeguard the organization’s infrastructure and data.

Role of Security Engineer:

Implementation:Security Engineers are tasked with the hands-on deployment and configuration of security systems, including firewalls, intrusion detection systems (IDS),and endpoint protection solutions. When a risk is identified, they are the ones who implement the necessary technological controls or processes to mitigate that risk.

Technical Expertise:Security Engineers possess the technical skills required to integrate new solutions into the existing environment, ensuring that they operate effectively without disrupting other systems.

Collaboration:While Security Architects design the overall security architecture and the SOC Manager oversees operations, the Security Engineer works on the ground, implementing the detailed aspects of the solutions.

Contrast with Other Roles:

Security Architect:Designs the security framework and architecture but does not usually perform the actual implementation.

SOC Manager:Oversees the security operations and might coordinate the response but does not directly implement new solutions.

Security Analyst:Monitors and analyzes security data, but typically does not implement new security systems.

Job Descriptions and Industry Standards:Detailed descriptions of Security Engineer roles in job postings and industry standards highlight their responsibilities in implementing security solutions.

Security Operations Best Practices:These documents and guidelines often outline the division of responsibilities in a security team, confirming that Security Engineers are the primary implementers.



Question # 5
An organization is using Risk-Based Alerting (RBA). During the past few days, a user account generated multiple risk observations. Splunk refers to this account as what type of entity?
A. Risk Factor
B. Risk Index
C. Risk Analysis
D. Risk Object


D. Risk Object

Explanation:

In Splunk’s Risk-Based Alerting (RBA) framework, aRisk Objectrefers to the specific entity (such as a user account, IP address, or host) that is associated with risk observations. When auser account generates multiple risk observations, it is labeled as a Risk Object, allowing security teams to track and manage risk more effectively.

Risk Object:

The Risk Object is central to Splunk’s RBA approach, which aggregates and evaluates risk across entities within an environment. This allows for a focused response to high-risk entities based on the accumulation of risk events.

Incorrect Options:

A. Risk Factor:This might refer to specific criteria or conditions that contribute to risk but does not denote the entity itself.

B. Risk Index:Could refer to a collection of risk-related data, not the specific entity.

C. Risk Analysis:Refers to the process of analyzing risk, not the entity under observation.

Splunk RBA Documentation:Detailed descriptions of how Risk Objects function within the Risk-Based Alerting framework.



Question # 6
What device typically sits at a network perimeter to detect command and control and other potentially suspicious traffic?
A. Host-based firewall
B. Web proxy
C. Web proxy
D. Endpoint Detection and Response
E. Intrusion Detection System


D. Endpoint Detection and Response

Explanation:

AnIntrusion Detection System (IDS)typically sits at the network perimeter and is designed to detect suspicious traffic, including command and control (C2) traffic and other potentially malicious activities.

Intrusion Detection Systems:

IDS are deployed at strategic points within the network, often at the perimeter, to monitor incoming and outgoing traffic for signs of malicious activity.

These systems are configured to detect various types of threats, including C2 traffic, which is a key indicator of compromised systems communicating with an attacker-controlled server.

Incorrect Options:

A. Host-based firewall:This is more focused on controlling traffic at the endpoint level, not at the network perimeter.

B. Web proxy:Primarily used for controlling and filtering web traffic, but not specifically designed to detect C2 traffic.

C. Endpoint Detection and Response (EDR):Focuses on endpoint protection rather than monitoring network perimeter traffic.

Network Security Practices:IDS implementation is a standard practice for perimeter security to detect early signs of network intrusion.



Question # 7
What is the main difference between a DDoS and a DoS attack?
A. A DDoS attack is a type of physical attack, while a DoS attack is a type of cyberattack.
B. A DDoS attack uses a single source to target a single system, while a DoS attack uses multiple sources to target multiple systems.
C. A DDoS attack uses multiple sources to target a single system, while a DoS attack uses a single source to target a single or multiple systems.
D. A DDoS attack uses a single source to target multiple systems, while a DoS attack uses multiple sources to target a single system.


C. A DDoS attack uses multiple sources to target a single system, while a DoS attack uses a single source to target a single or multiple systems.

Explanation:

The primary difference between a Distributed Denial of Service (DDoS) attack and a Denial of Service (DoS) attack is in the source of the attack. ADDoSattack involves multiple compromised systems (often part of a botnet) attacking a single target, overwhelming it with traffic or requests. In contrast, aDoSattack typically involves a single source attacking the target. The goal of both attacks is to make a service unavailable, but DDoS attacks are usually more difficult to defend against because of their distributed nature.



Question # 8
An analyst notices that one of their servers is sending an unusually large amount of traffic, gigabytes more than normal, to a single system on the Internet. There doesn’t seem to be any associated increase in incoming traffic. What type of threat actor activity might this represent?
A. Data exfiltration
B. Network reconnaissance
C. Data infiltration
D. Lateral movement


A. Data exfiltration

Explanation:

Unusual Traffic Patterns:

The key observation here is that one of the servers is sending out a significantly large amount of data to a single external system, with no corresponding increase in incoming traffic.

Possible Threat Activities:

A. Data Exfiltration:

This scenario typically aligns with data exfiltration, where an attacker has successfully compromised a system and is sending out large volumes of stolen data to an external server.

Data exfiltration often involves consistent or large data transfers over time to an external IP address, which matches the description provided.

B. Network Reconnaissance:

While reconnaissance involves scanning and probing, it generally does not produce large outbound data flows but rather small, frequent connection attempts or queries.

C. Data Infiltration:

Infiltration would involve incoming data to the compromised server, which contradicts the scenario as there is no observed increase in incoming traffic.

D. Lateral Movement:

Lateral movement would involve traffic between internal systems rather than large amounts of data being sent to an external system.

Scenario Analysis:Conclusion:Given the evidence of large data transfers to a single external system without corresponding inbound traffic,data exfiltrationis the most likely scenario. This suggests that an adversary has compromised the server and is extracting valuable or sensitive data from the organization.

Data Exfiltration Techniques:Techniques such as those documented in the MITRE ATT&CK framework (e.g.,T1041 - Exfiltration Over C2 Channel) detail how attackers move data out of a network.

Incident Response Playbooks:Many incident response frameworks emphasize monitoring for unusual outbound traffic as a primary indicator of data exfiltration.



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Splunk SPLK-5001 Exam Dumps

Exam Name: Splunk Certified Cybersecurity Defense Analyst
Certification Name: Cybersecurity Defense Analyst

Splunk SPLK-5001 exam dumps are created by industry top professionals and after that its also verified by expert team. We are providing you updated Splunk Certified Cybersecurity Defense Analyst exam questions answers. We keep updating our Cybersecurity Defense Analyst practice test according to real exam. So prepare from our latest questions answers and pass your exam.

  • Total Questions: 66
  • Last Updation Date: 22-Nov-2024

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