C. Create two files and use the .yaml file.

A. All the output values are available after a successful terraform apply command
B. The subnet_private 1 value is defined in the variables . tf file

Answer DescriptionExplanation: A. All the output values are available after a successful terraform apply command. This means that after the deployment, you can view the output values by running terraform output or terraform show in the same directory where you ran terraform apply1. You can also use the output values in other Terraform configurations or external systems by using the terraform output command with various options2. B. The subnet_private_1 value is defined in the variables.tf file. This means that the subnet_private_1 value is an input variable that can be customized by passing a different value when running terraform apply or by setting an environment variable3. The variables.tf file is where you declare all the input variables for your Terraform configuration4.
The other options are incorrect because:
After the deployment, Terraform output values are not visible only through AWS CloudShell. You can access them from any shell or terminal where you have Terraform installed and configured with your AWS credentials.
You do not need to specify all the AWS credentials in the output.tf file. The output.tf file is where you declare all the output values for your Terraform configuration4. You can specify your AWS credentials in a separate file, such as provider.tf, or use environment variables or shared credentials files.
References:
Output Values - Configuration Language | Terraform - HashiCorp Developer Command: output - Terraform by HashiCorp
Input Variables - Configuration Language | Terraform - HashiCorp Developer Configuration Language | Terraform - HashiCorp Developer

A. When adding a repository, you can leave the Tag section blank to scan all images-
C. The registry scan is part of the FortiCNP container protection.

Answer DescriptionExplanation: The exhibit shows the results of a FortiCNP registry scan, which is part of the FortiCNP container protection. FortiCNP’s Container Protection provides deep visibility into the security posture of container registries and images1. The registry scan utilizes Common Vulnerabilities and Exposures (CVE) index regularly updated by NVD to detect underlying vulnerabilities, security flaws, and provides security best practices2. The registry scan is performed at the registry level, and it can scan all images in a repository if the Tag section is left blank when adding a repository2. The CAP section stands for Container Assurance Policy, which defines the minimum number of images to be scanned per repository3. Therefore, the correct statements are A and C.

B. The default network ACL is configured to allow all traffic
C. NetworkACLs are stateless, and inbound and outbound rules are used for traffic filtering

Answer DescriptionB. The default network ACL is configured to allow all traffic. This means that when you create a VPC, AWS automatically creates a default network ACL for that VPC, and associates it with all the subnets in the VPC1. By default, the default network ACL allows all inbound and outbound IPv4 traffic and, if applicable, IPv6 traffic1. You can modify the default network ACL, but you cannot delete it1.
C. Network ACLs are stateless, and inbound and outbound rules are used for traffic filtering. This means that network ACLs do not keep track of the traffic that they allow or deny, and they evaluate each packet separately1. Therefore, you need to create both inbound and outbound rules for each type of traffic that you want to allow or deny1. For example, if you want to allow SSH traffic from a specific IP address to your subnet, you need to create an inbound rule to allow TCP port 22 from that IP address, and an outbound rule to allow TCP port 1024-65535 (the ephemeral ports) to that IP address2.
The other options are incorrect because:
You can use network ACL and security group at the same time. Network ACL and security group are two different types of security layers for your VPC that can work together to control traffic3. Network ACLacts as a firewall for your subnets, while security group acts as a firewall for your instances3. You can use both of them to create a more granular and effective security policy for your VPC.
Network ACLs are not tied to an instance. Network ACLs are associated with subnets, not instances1. This means that network ACLs apply to all the instances in the subnets that they are associated with1. You cannot associate a network ACL with a specific instance. However, you can associate a security group with a specific instance or multiple instances3.

B. An internal load balancer listener is the next-hop for outgoing traffic.
D. A dedicated management interface can be used for load balancing.

Answer DescriptionA is incorrect because the FortiGate public IP is not the next-hop for all the traffic. The FortiGate public IP is only used for incoming traffic from the internet. The Azure load balancer distributes the incoming traffic to the active FortiGate VM based on a health probe123. The FortiGate public IP is not used for outgoing traffic or internal traffic.
B is correct because an internal load balancer listener is the next-hop for outgoing traffic. The internal load balancer listener is configured with a floating IP address that is assigned to the active FortiGate VM. The internal load balancer listener also has a health probe to monitor the status of the FortiGate VMs123. The internal load balancer listener forwards the outgoing traffic to the internet through the public load balancer.
C is incorrect because you do not need to add a route to the Microsoft VIP used for the health check. The Microsoft VIP is an internal IP address that is used by the Azure load balancer to send health probes to the FortiGate VMs123. The Microsoft VIP is not reachable from outside the Azure network and does not require any routing configuration on the FortiGate VMs.
D is correct because a dedicated management interface can be used for load balancing. In this deployment, port4 is used as a dedicated management interface that connects to the management network3. The dedicated management interface can be used to access the FortiGate VMs for configuration and monitoring purposes. The dedicated management interface can also be used to synchronize the configuration and session information between the primary and secondary devices in an HA cluster2.

A. The peer GRE address is the FortiGate external interface IP address.
B. The Transit Gateway GRE address is auto-generated

Answer DescriptionExplanation:
A. The peer GRE address is the FortiGate external interface IP address. This is the IP address of the FortiGate interface that is connected to the transit gateway attachment subnet1. This IP address is used to establish the GRE tunnel between the FortiGate and the transit gateway2.
B. The Transit Gateway GRE address is auto-generated. This is the IP address of the transit gateway that is used to establish the GRE tunnel with the FortiGate2. This IP address is automatically assigned by AWS from the Transit Gateway CIDR range that you specify when you create the Connect attachment3. The other options are incorrect because:
The BGP inside CIDR blocks cannot be any CIDR block with /29. They must be a /29 CIDR block from the 169.254.0.0/16 range for IPv4, or a /125 CIDR block from the fd00::/8 range for IPv64. These are the inside IP addresses that are used for BGP peering over the GRE tunnel4.
The Peer GRE address is not the FortiGate internal interface IP address. The internal interface IP address is used to route traffic from the FortiGate to the VPC subnet where the third-party appliance (such as SD-WAN) is located1. The Peer GRE address is used to route traffic from the FortiGate to the transit gateway over the GRE tunnel2.

C. You must run the terraform init command once, before the terraform plan command
D. The terraform plan command makes terraform do a dry run.

Answer DescriptionExplanation:
A is incorrect because the terraform plan command will not deploy any resources at all. It will only show the changes that would be made if the terraform apply command was run. The error message in the exhibit indicates that the service principal details are invalid, which means that Terraform cannot authenticate to Azure and cannot create any resources1.
B is incorrect because you can run the terraform apply command without running the terraform plan command first. The terraform apply command will automatically generate a new plan and prompt you to approve it before applying it2. However, running the terraform plan command first can help you preview the changes and avoid any unwanted or unexpected actions.
C is correct because you must run the terraform init command once before the terraform plan command. The terraform init command initializes a working directory containing Terraform configuration files. It downloads and installs the provider plugins required for your configuration, such as the Azure provider2. It also creates a hidden directory called .terraform to store the plugin binaries and other metadata1. Without running the terraform init command, the terraform plan command will fail because it cannot find the required plugins or modules.
D is correct because the terraform plan command makes Terraform do a dry run. A dry run is a simulation of what would happen if you executed a certain action, without actually performing it. The terraform plan command creates an execution plan, which is a description of the actions that Terraform would take to make your infrastructure match your configuration2. The execution plan shows you what resources will be created, modified, or destroyed, and what attributes will be changed. The execution plan does not affect your infrastructure or state file until you apply it with the terraform apply command1.

A. Use multiple terraform.tfvars files With a variables.tf file.